Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 22.06.2025 02:17
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Why did McLaren hope that the Ferrari pair would pit twice during the Italian Grand Prix?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Autism and ADHD have distinct brain connectivity signatures, study finds - Medical Xpress
There's no rule.